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100% Free ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management–100% Free Reliable Test Forum | High Hit-Rate Real ITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management Exam Exam Questions

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Peoplecert ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic
Details

Topic 1

Change: This section of the exam measures the skills of DevOps Engineers and focuses on how to manage and control changes within IT environments. It includes planning, executing, monitoring, and communicating changes to ensure minimal disruption while keeping stakeholders informed about the progress and impact of changes.

Topic 2

AI and Automation: This section of the exam measures the skills of IT Operations Managers and addresses the use of AI and automation in delivering IT systems and applications that align with user needs. It ensures that software releases meet quality standards, are delivered on time, and stay within budget, using modern tools and intelligent technologies.

Topic 3

Service Design: This section of the exam measures the skills of IT Release Managers and covers the principles and practices involved in designing services and products that are practical, useful, and aligned with stakeholder expectations. It focuses on ensuring that services are designed in a way that they can be effectively delivered and supported by the organization and its partners.

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Peoplecert ITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management Exam Sample Questions (Q17-Q22):

NEW QUESTION # 17
A new release manager wants to explain to the organization's service consumers the purpose of a new release management practice. What should the release manager say to the service consumers to help them realize the value of release management?

A. The release management practice will ensure the quick use of improved services after new service features have been made available.
B. The release management practice will ensure that new service features are available to the service operations team to reduce business losses.
C. The release management practice will ensure that new service features are available to the service operations team to enable them to perform tests.
D. The release management practice will ensure that new service features are available to users to mitigate the service provider's risks.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The purpose of the release management practice in ITIL 4 is to make new and changed services and features available for use by ensuring a controlled and efficient release process. According to theITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument, the purpose is defined as:"The purpose of the release management practice is to make new and changed services and features available for use"(Section 2.1). This focuses on delivering value to service consumers by enabling them to use improved or new services quickly and effectively.
* Option A focuses on the service operations team performing tests, which is part of the release process but not the primary value perceived by service consumers.
* Option B mentions reducing business losses for the operations team, which is an internal benefit, not a direct value for consumers.
* Option C aligns directly with the purpose: "the quick use of improved services after new service features have been made available" reflects the consumer-facing value of release management- ensuring they can benefit from new or improved services promptly.
* Option D focuses on mitigating the service provider's risks, which is a provider-centric benefit, not a consumer-focused value statement.
Thus, the correct answer is C, as it directly addresses the value to service consumers by emphasizing the availability and usability of improved services, aligning with the ITIL 4 definition of release management's purpose.

NEW QUESTION # 18
A service provider is conducting a capability assessment of the release management practice. It has been found that although the practice's performance is regularly reported and reviewed, most recommendations based on the reports are never implemented. What is the MAXIMUM capability level that could be given to the release management practice?

A. Level 4
B. Level 2
C. Level 3
D. Level 5

Answer: B

Explanation:
The ITIL capability model assesses practices based on their maturity and ability to improve. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument outlines the capability levels:"Level 2 (Managed) indicates that the practice is planned and tracked, with performance regularly reported. Level 3 (Defined) requires standardized processes and the ability to improve based on feedback. If recommendations from performance reviews are not implemented, the practice cannot achieve Level 3"(Section 5.2).
* The scenario indicates that performance is reported and reviewed (meeting Level 2 requirements), but recommendations are not implemented, meaning there's no improvement or standardization beyond basic management.
* Level 3 requires consistent improvement and standardization, which is not met due to the lack of implementation.
* Levels 4 (Quantitatively Managed) and 5 (Optimizing) require even higher maturity, including data- driven improvements and continuous optimization, which are not applicable here.
The maximum capability level is A (Level 2), as the practice is managed but not improving.

NEW QUESTION # 19
A service provider is receiving poor feedback from customers about releases of updates to a software product.
A review has shown that releases are often delayed or have to be repeated due to a lack of information about their impact on business processes and on other IT systems. The service provider is reviewing the value streams involving the software releases. Which step of the value stream analysis should the service provider use to understand the required information and dependencies?

A. Creating a 'to be' value stream map
B. Reflecting on the 'as is' value stream map
C. Identifying the scope of the value stream analysis
D. Identifying the workflow steps

Answer: B

Explanation:
Value stream analysis in ITIL 4 helps identify inefficiencies and dependencies in processes like release management. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument notes:"Reflecting on the 'as is' value stream map allows organizations to understand the current state, including dependencies and impacts on business processes and IT systems, which can reveal gaps in information that lead to delays or failures" (Section 4.3).
* Option A (Creating a 'to be' value stream map) focuses on designing the future state, which comes after understanding the current state.
* Option B (Reflecting on the 'as is' value stream map) is the correct step to understand current impacts and dependencies, identifying the root cause of delays and repeats.
* Option C (Identifying the scope of the value stream analysis) is an initial step but doesn't directly address understanding impacts.
* Option D (Identifying the workflow steps) is part of mapping but doesn't emphasize reflection on impacts and dependencies.
The correct answer is B, as reflecting on the current value stream map helps uncover the missing information about impacts.

NEW QUESTION # 20
A large organization is adjusting its IT organizational structure to optimize for faster, more collaborative, and less bureaucratic working practices. There is a significant number of changes and related releases that are handled by the product and project teams. What is the BEST way for the organization to position release management in the new organizational structure?

A. Appoint a release manager in every product team to coordinate and coach the team members
B. Delegate most release management responsibilities to product and project teams but appoint a release manager to coordinate and coach the teams
C. Establish a centralized release management team to manage all releases
D. Delegate all release management responsibilities to product and project teams

Answer: B

Explanation:
In a collaborative, less bureaucratic structure, release management needs to balance decentralization with oversight to ensure consistency and alignment. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument advises:"In organizations adopting collaborative practices, release management responsibilities can be delegated to product and project teams to enable faster decision-making, but a release manager should be appointed to coordinate and coach the teams, ensuring consistency and adherence to standards"(Section
3.3.2).
* Option A (Centralized team) contradicts the goal of reducing bureaucracy and enabling faster, collaborative practices.
* Option B (Delegate all responsibilities) risks inconsistency and lack of oversight, which can lead to uncoordinated releases.
* Option C (Delegate most responsibilities but appoint a release manager to coordinate and coach) balances decentralization with oversight, aligning with the goal of faster, collaborative practices while maintaining consistency.
* Option D (Appoint a release manager in every team) is overly resource-intensive and may lead to fragmented approaches across teams.
The correct answer is C, as it best supports the new organizational structure while ensuring effective release management.

NEW QUESTION # 21
A service provider is reviewing its release management practice. It has been found that most releases meet their objectives and are delivered on time. However, teams and organizations using the service provider's services are complaining that sometimes software updates interrupt their work during peak business hours.
What should the service provider do to improve the release management practice by applying the 'collaborate and promote visibility' guiding principle?

A. Ensure an excellent user experience
B. Optimize the practice for the value streams
C. Review the effectiveness of release models
D. Do not overcomplicate the practice

Answer: A

Explanation:
The 'collaborate and promote visibility' guiding principle in ITIL 4 emphasizes working with stakeholders to ensure transparency and alignment with their needs. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management document advises:"Applying the 'collaborate and promote visibility' principle involves working closely with stakeholders, such as service consumers, to understand their needs and ensure releases do not disrupt their operations, thereby ensuring an excellent user experience"(Section 5.1).
* The issue is that updates interrupt work during peak hours, indicating a lack of collaboration with users to understand their schedules and needs.
* Option A (Ensure an excellent user experience) directly addresses this by implying collaboration with users to schedule releases at non-disruptive times, aligning with the principle.
* Option B (Review the effectiveness of release models) is an internal activity and doesn't directly involve collaboration with stakeholders.
* Option C (Optimize the practice for the value streams) focuses on value stream efficiency but doesn't specifically address user collaboration.
* Option D (Do not overcomplicate the practice) is unrelated to the collaboration principle.
The correct answer is A, as ensuring an excellent user experience through collaboration directly applies the principle to address the issue.

NEW QUESTION # 22
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